Traditionally this verse has been interpreted to mean that one must worship God with the right actions ("in truth", cf. John 17:17) and with the right attitude ("in spirit"). However, is that the case? I am in agreement that one ought to worship God with authorized acts of worship (cf. Colossians 3:17) in a spirit of reverence (cf. Matthew 15:7-9; Hebrews 12:28, 29; Psalm 89:7) but is that the proper explanation of John 4:24? Let us examine the text and determine whether or not this is so.
Jesus and His disciples had just entered a city of Samaria called "Sychar" where Jacob's well was (vs. 5, 6). When they arrived "Jesus...being wearied with His journey, sat thus on the well" (v.6). As a particular woman of Samaria comes to draw water, Jesus engages her in conversation. In His masterful way of teaching He was able to move from a physical topic (water, vs. 7-9) to a spiritual one (everlasting life, vs. 10-15). By telling the woman things which no stranger could possibly know, Jesus proves that He is no ordinary man (vs. 16-18). "The woman saith unto Him, Sir, I perceive that thou art a prophet" (v. 19). Now let me ask this question: what would you do if you knew that you were in the presence of one who had direct revelation from God? Personally, I would ask that person the most pressing religious question(s) I had. The Samaritan woman responded the same way. She asks the Christ, "Our fathers worshiped in this mountain [Mount Gerazim, MB]; and ye [the Jews, MB] say, that in Jerusalem is the place where men ought to worship" (v. 20). In essence, her question was this: "Where ought men to worship? In Jerusalem or on Mount Gerazim?" "Jesus saith unto her, Woman believe me, the hour cometh, when ye shall neither worship in this mountain, nor yet at Jerusalem, worship the Father. Ye worship ye know not what: we know what we worship; for salvation is of the Jews" (vs. 21, 22). In reverse order, Jesus answers her question. He says, "Ye worship ye know not what: we know what we worship; for salvation is of the Jews." This answers the question as to where men ought to worship: in Jerusalem. However, Jesus also warns the woman of a change that is on the horizon: "The hour cometh, when ye shall neither worship in this mountain, nor yet at Jerusalem, worship the Father." Jesus pointed to a time when worship would not be centered around any particular geographic location. That would have been a very revolutionary statement. For little more than a thousand years the worship of the God of heaven had centered around Jerusalem, and now, all that was going to change. Jesus was undoubtedly pointing to the abrogation of the Law of Moses, the coming of a new law (cf. Hebrews 8:7-13; 10:4-10), and the establishment of the church (cf. Matthew 16:18, 19; Acts 2:36-47). This sets the context for the following passage:
"But the hour cometh, and now is, when the true worshipers shall worship the Father in spirit and in truth: for the Father seeketh such to worship Him. God is a Spirit: and they that worship Him must worship Him in spirit and in truth" (vs. 23, 24).
We will ask two questions from this passage: 1. What does the phrase "the hour cometh, and now is" mean? 2. What does the phrase "in spirit and in truth" mean?
1. What does the phrase "the hour cometh, and now is" mean? Is the hour coming or is it already here? Does it refer to a future or a present condition?
This phrase, or its equivalent, only appears in the gospel according to John, and only appears three times (John 4:23; 5:25; 16:23). Of these three verses John 16:23 gives us the clearest definition of the phrase. The record of John 16 finds Jesus in an upper room with His apostles partaking of His last Passover feast at which He instituted the Lord's Supper. As they ate, Christ taught. During this upper room discourse Jesus speaks these words: "Behold, the hour cometh, yea, is now come, that ye shall be scattered, every man to his own, and shall leave me alone: and yet I am not alone, because the Father is with me." Question: were the apostles currently with Him or had they already been scattered? Obviously, they were with Him. If not, to whom is He speaking? So, in the strictest sense, the phrase "the hour cometh, and now is" refers to an event that is yet in the future.
However, we might also ask, "What will bring about this 'scattering' of the apostles?" Certainly that is a reference to their scattering upon Jesus' arrest (cf. Mark 14:50). Now, when Jesus is arrested whom do we find leading the bunch? None other than Judas Isacriot (Mark 14:43-50). When the words of John 16:32 were spoken Judas Iscariot had already left the upper room to betray the Christ into the hands of sinners. So while the phrase "the hour cometh, and now is" has reference to a future event, it is an imminent one. The things which would bring this event to pass were already taking place.
2. What does "in spirit and in truth" mean?
How does our definition of "the hour cometh, and now is" affect the meaning of "in spirit and in truth"? Notice, "But the hour cometh, and now is, when the true worshipers shall worship the Father in spirit and in truth: for the Father seeketh such to worship Him" (v. 23). The record says that though things were working in order to bring about worship that is "in spirit and in truth" that kind of worship was yet in the future. Question: were there Jews who were presently worshiping with reverence and godly fear ("in spirit") according to the Law of Moses ("in truth")? Certainly there were, and yet, Jesus says that that has yet to take place. We have a dilemma: either there was not a single Jew worshiping correctly ("in spirit and in truth"), or, the traditional definition of "in spirit and in truth" is a flawed one. The conclusion is evident: the definition is flawed.
What then is the definition of "in spirit and in truth"?
A. Very often in the New Testament the word "flesh" is used as a metaphor for the Law of Moses. In the same way, the word "spirit" is used as a metaphor for the New Law, the New Testament, the gospel of Jesus Christ.
Notice: "Wherefore, my brethren, ye also are become dead to the law by the body of Christ; that ye should be married to another, even to Him who is raised from the dead, that we should bring forth fruit unto God. For when we were in the flesh, the motions of sins, which were by the law, did work in our members to bring forth fruit unto death. But now we are delivered from the law, that being dead wherein we were held; that we should serve in newness of spirit, and not in the oldness of the letter. What shall we say then? Is the law sin? God forbid. Nay, I had not known sin, but by the law: for I had not known lust, except the law had said, Thou shalt not covet" (Romans 7:4-7). In this text Paul discusses himself as he was under the old law and as he is under the new law. We can know of which law he is speaking because he quotes from it: "Thou shalt not covet" (v.7). Which law said that? The Law of Moses. When Paul speaks of himself under the Law of Moses he says that he was "in the flesh." Here, "the flesh" is a metaphor for the Law of Moses. When Paul speaks of himself as a Christian he says that he serves in "newness of spirit."
"Beware of dogs, beware of evil workers, beware of the concision. For we are the circumcision, which worship God in the spirit, and rejoice in Christ Jesus, and have no confidence in the flesh. Though I might also have confidence in the flesh. If any other man thinketh that he hath whereof he might trust in the flesh, I more: circumcised the eighth day, of the stock of Israel, of the tribe of Benjamin, an Hebrew of the Hebrews; as touching the law, a Pharisee; concerning zeal, persecuting the church; touching the righteousness which is in the law, blameless. But what things were gain to me, those I counted loss for Christ" (Philippians 3:2-7). This passage is undoubtedly a contrast between the things accomplished by Paul while serving the Law of Moses ("in the flesh") and the things gained in Christ. It's interesting that in this passage Paul actually uses the phrase "worship God in spirit" (v.3) as a reference to his serving God according to the New Law in lieu of the Old.
And finally, notice the following passage: "Forasmuch as ye are manifestly declared to be the epistle of Christ ministered by us, written not with ink, but with the Spirit of the living God; not in tables of stone, but in fleshly tables of the heart. And such trust have we through Christ to God-ward: not that we are sufficient of ourselves to think any thing as of ourselves; but our sufficiency is of God; who also hath made us able ministers of the new testament; not of the letter, but of the spirit: for the letter killeth, but the spirit giveth life. But if the ministration of death written and engraven in stones, was glorious, so that the children of Israel could not steadfastly behold the face of Moses for the glory of his countenance; which glory was to be done away: how shall not the ministration of the spirit be rather glorious?" (2 Corinthians 3:3-8). Can there be any question as to the illustration here? The "ministration of death" (v.7), also called "the letter" (v. 6), was one that was "engraven in stones" (vs.3, 7) and administered by the hands of "Moses" (v.7). This is an obvious reference to the Old Law, the Law of Moses. Whereas, the New Law, the "new testament" (v.6), is called "the ministration of the spirit" (v.8), or just, "the spirit" (v.6).
B. When contrasting things of the Old Law and things of the New Law, the former is spoken of as a "shadow" or "figure" and the latter is called "the image," "the perfect," or "the true."
This imagery is used repeatedly in the book of Hebrews:
"For the law having a shadow of good things to come, and not the very image of the things, can never with those sacrifices, which they offered year by year continually, make the comers thereunto perfect" (10:1).
"The Holy Ghost this signifying, that the way into the holiest of all was not yet made manifest, while as the first tabernacle was yet standing: which was a figure for the time then present, in which were offered both gifts and sacrifices, that could not make him that did the service perfect, as pertaining to the conscience; which stood only in meats and drinks, and divers washings, and carnal ordinances, imposed on them until the time of reformation. But Christ being come an high priest of good things to come, by a greater and more perfect tabernacle, not made with hands, that is to say, not of this building; neither by the blood of goats and calves, but by His own blood He entered once into the holy place, having obtained eternal redemption for us . . . For Christ is not entered into the holy places made with hands, which are figures of the true; but into heaven itself, now to appear in the presence of God for us" (9:8-12, 24).
Notice also this very revealing passage from the gospel according to John: "For the law was given by Moses, but grace and truth came by Jesus Christ" (John 1:17). What are we to make of such a statement? Are we to think that there was no grace under the Law of Moses? Certainly not. Five times in Exodus 33:12-17 it is said that both Moses and the people had found grace in God's sight. Are we to think that there is no law for those that are in Christ? Absolutely not. Galatians 6:2 and 1 Corinthians 9:21 both make mention of "the law of Christ." Again we ask, what then are we to make of such a passage? Here again we find a contrast between the Old Law and the New. One may want to make note that in the original language the definite article is present before both "grace" and "truth" to make the passage read thusly: "For the law was given by Moses, but [the] grace and [the] truth came by Jesus Christ." We find a similar construction in Ephesians 2:8, "For by [the] grace are ye saved through [the] faith; and that not of yourselves: it is the gift of God." When the definite article is present it has reference to the system of grace, the system of truth, the system of faith, the New Testament, the gospel of Jesus Christ. Notice the following examples:
"And the word of God increased; and the number of the disciples multiplied in Jerusalem greatly; and a great company of the priests were obedient to the faith" (Acts 6:7). What had the priests obeyed? "The word of God"which is designated later as "the faith."
"But they had heard only, That he which persecuted us in times past now preacheth the faith which once he destroyed" (Galatians 1:23). What did Paul preach? "But I certify you, brethren, that the gospel which was preached of me is not after man" (Galatians 1:11). Paul preached "the gospel" which was elsewhere called "the faith."
"But before [the] faith came, we were kept under the law, shut up unto the faith which should afterward be revealed. Wherefore the law was our schoolmaster to bring us unto Christ, that we might be justified by faith. But after that [the] faith is come, we are no longer under a schoolmaster. For ye are all the children of God by [the] faith in Christ Jesus. For as many of you as have been baptized into Christ have put on Christ" (Galatians 3:23-27). Are we to believe that no one under the Old Law had faith? Of course not. What then is the meaning of the phrase "before faith came"? When the word "faith" is used in this passage it refers to the New Testament. Before the New Testament came, we were under the Old Law (cf. Romans 7:1-4).
"The faith" refers undoubtedly to God's power to save, the gospel of Jesus Christ (cf. Romans 1:16). The faith is equated with "the grace" (cf. Ephesians 2:8), and "the grace" is called "the truth" per John 1:17. All of these things reference the New Law, the New Testament of Jesus Christ.
Conclusion:
Jesus has just answered the question of the Samaritan woman concerning worship: "Jesus saith unto her, Woman, believe me, the hour cometh, when ye shall neither worship in this mountain, nor yet at Jerusalem, worship the Father. Ye worship ye know not what: we know what we worship; for salvation is of the Jews" (vs.21, 22). To paraphrase, "The Jews worship correctly by worshiping Jerusalem. However, there is coming a time when worship will not be restricted to any particular geographic location." How soon will this worship arrive? What will it be like? "But the hour cometh, and now is, when the true worshipers shall worship the Father in spirit and in truth: for the Father seeketh such to worship Him. God is a spirit: and they that worship Him must worship Him in spirit and in truth" (vs.23, 24). In essence, Jesus answers, "The events that will bring about this new worship are already taking place. It is as if it is already here. This new worship will not be in the fleshly carnal ordinances of the Old Law (cf. Hebrews 9:9-12; Philippians 3:2-7; Colossians 3:12-17), but rather, it will be a ministration of the spirit (cf. 2 Corinthians 3:6-8), with a spiritual priesthood (cf. 1 Peter 2:9), and spiritual children of Abraham (cf. Galatians 3:23-29). This new worship will be according to a law that is not merely a figure or shadow of redemption (cf. Hebrews 9:9-12), but a law which brings about true redemption and actual remission of sins (cf. Hebrews 9:24; 10:1-10; John 1:17). These are the worshipers that God desires. Those that wish to worship Him must worship Him in the spirit, not in the flesh. Those that worship Him must worship Him in truth, not according to the shadow and figure. Those that worship God must forsake the Law of Moses and worship God according to the New Testament."
What a succinct explanation of the scheme of redemption. In the space of four verses Jesus the Christ takes us from Mt. Sinai to the old rugged cross. Jesus truly is the master teacher.
"God is a spirit: and they that worship Him must worship Him in spirit and in truth" (John 4:24).
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